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Welcome to your Critical Care Test 10
A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension, smoking, and recent hip replacement surgery presents with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is performed and shows a large embolus in the right pulmonary artery. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Intravenous heparin
Oral warfarin
Thrombolytic therapy (tPA)
Administer a dose of aspirin
Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation
None
A 22-year-old male presents to the ER with sudden sharp chest pain, tachypnea, and decreased breath sounds on the right side. He has no significant past medical history. On physical examination, the trachea is midline, and breath sounds are absent on the right hemithorax. A chest x-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-flow oxygen
Observation and follow-up in 24 hours
Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion
Immediate thoracotomy
Antibiotic therapy
None
A 45-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) on immunosuppressive therapy presents with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray shows multiple infiltrates. A sputum culture grows Histoplasma capsulatum. What is the most likely risk factor for this patient’s fungal pneumonia?
Immunosuppressive therapy
Recent travel to an endemic area
History of smoking
Exposure to bird droppings
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
None
A 30-year-old woman presents with acute epigastric pain radiating to her back, nausea, and vomiting. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated amylase and lipase level (5 times the normal limit). Abdominal ultrasound shows a normal gallbladder. What is the most likely etiology of her acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones
Alcohol consumption
Hypercalcemia
Viral infection
Hypertriglyceridemia
None
A 55-year-old man presents with hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury (AKI). He has a recent history of diarrhea. Laboratory results show schistocytes on peripheral smear and a positive stool culture for Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
None
A 58-year-old man with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to septic shock is not responding to medical management with fluids and vasopressors. He is oliguric with rising creatinine levels, and his acid base status is worsening. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?
Dialysis using hemodialysis
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
Peritoneal dialysis
Conservative management with diuretics
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
None
A 45-year-old woman with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to severe pneumonia is being mechanically ventilated but is not responding to conventional therapies. Her oxygenation remains poor despite high levels of PEEP and FiO2. Her physicians decide to initiate ECMO. Which of the following is the most likely indication for starting ECMO in this patient?
Acute renal failure
Cardiac arrest
Severe refractory hypoxemia despite optimal mechanical ventilation
Severe metabolic acidosis
Neurological dysfunction
None
A 30-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops worsening renal failure, hematuria, and hypertension. His laboratory results show low complement levels, elevated anti-dsDNA antibodies, and proteinuria. Despite treatment with steroids and immunosuppressants, his condition deteriorates. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Dialysis
Plasmapheresis
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Rituximab therapy
High-dose corticosteroids alone
None
A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent venous thromboembolic events despite being on warfarin therapy. Her family history is significant for multiple relatives with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following genetic disorders is most likely responsible for her recurrent clotting?
Antithrombin deficiency
Factor V Leiden mutation
Protein C deficiency
Prothrombin G20210A mutation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
None
A 60-year-old woman is admitted for heart failure exacerbation. She is receiving furosemide for diuresis. Her electrolytes are as follows: Sodium 134 mEq/L, Potassium 2.6 mEq/L, Chloride 98 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L. She is complaining of muscle weakness, palpitations, and constipation. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypercalcemia
None
A 70-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with sudden shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. A CT pulmonary angiogram reveals a large embolus in the right lower lobe. Her INR is 2.0. Which of the following is the next step in management?
Continue warfarin and add low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Begin thrombolytic therapy (tPA)
Initiate a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Stop warfarin and start an intravenous heparin infusion
Perform an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter placement
None
A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a history of corticosteroid use presents with cough, fever, and shortness of breath. A chest CT scan reveals multiple nodules and a cavity in the right upper lobe. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Oral itraconazole
Intravenous amphotericin B
High-dose corticosteroids
Surgical resection of the lesion
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
None
A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor, and abdominal pain. Laboratory findings include hemolytic anemia (elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin), thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury (creatinine 2.5 mg/dL). Peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes. His recent history includes a gastrointestinal illness with diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
None
A 30-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a history of easy bruising. Lab results show a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), normal prothrombin time (PT), and normal platelet count. Mixing studies show no correction of the aPTT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Factor VIII deficiency (Hemophilia A)
Von Willebrand disease
Lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid syndrome)
Factor XI deficiency
Hemophilia B
None
A 60-year-old woman with heart failure and chronic kidney disease is admitted for an exacerbation of her symptoms. She is on furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. Laboratory results show: ï‚· Sodium 135 mEq/L ï‚· Potassium 5.6 mEq/L ï‚· Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L ï‚· Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.8 mg/dL) She complains of generalized weakness and palpitations. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hyperglycemia
None
A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes and chronic corticosteroid use presents with fever, cough, and weight loss. Chest CT reveals multiple, asymmetric, cavitary lesions with surrounding consolidation. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Oral fluconazole
Oral itraconazole
Intravenous amphotericin B
High-dose corticosteroids
Surgical resection
None
A 70-year-old woman is admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On day 2 of hospitalization, she develops sudden-onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A chest CT shows a pulmonary embolism in the left lower lobe. She is not hypotensive or in shock. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Initiate systemic thrombolysis
Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Start intravenous heparin
Start warfarin
Perform an inferior vena cava filter insertion
None
A 25-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents with a history of spontaneous deep vein thrombosis (DVT) at the age of 20. Laboratory workup shows an elevated homocysteine level and a normal Factor V Leiden mutation test. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
Protein S deficiency
Antithrombin deficiency
Homocystinuria
Factor VIII deficiency
Antiphospholipid syndrome
None
A 40-year-old man presents with weakness, confusion, and vomiting. He has a history of chronic alcohol use and is admitted for acute pancreatitis. His electrolytes are as follows: Sodium 120 mEq/L, Potassium 3.2 mEq/L, Chloride 85 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L. What is the most likely cause of his hyponatremia?
Severe dehydration
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Acute kidney injury (AKI)
Diuretic use
Hyperglycemia
None
A 40-year-old woman with a history of obesity, recent oral contraceptive use, and smoking presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. What is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for this patient?
Warfarin therapy for 3 months
Apixaban therapy for 3 months
Warfarin therapy indefinitely
Aspirin therapy for 3 months
Inferior vena cava filter insertion
None
A 25-year-old male with no significant medical history presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of smoking and reports no recent trauma. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the left side, and a chest X-ray shows a large left-sided pneumothorax. What is the next step in management?
Observation and repeat chest X-ray in 6 hours
Needle aspiration of the pneumothorax
Chest tube insertion
Administration of oxygen and repeat imaging in 24 hours
Surgical pleurodesis
None
A 45-year-old male with no significant medical history presents with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) despite no obvious risk factors. Lab results reveal an elevated homocysteine level. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Vitamin B6 supplementation
Low-dose warfarin therapy
Lifelong anticoagulation with rivaroxaban
Folate and vitamin B12 supplementation
Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin
None
A 55-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back. His labs reveal elevated lipase, amylase, and liver enzymes. His abdominal CT shows diffuse pancreatic inflammation without pancreatic necrosis. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Immediate surgical drainage of the pancreas
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Fluid resuscitation and pain control
Antibiotics to prevent infection
Insulin therapy
None
A 45-year-old woman with a history of obesity and a recent cesarean section presents with sudden-onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A chest CT angiogram confirms a large pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. Her vital signs are stable, and she is not hypotensive. What is the most appropriate management?
Immediate systemic thrombolysis
Heparin infusion and start warfarin
Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Perform inferior vena cava (IVC) filter insertion
Start direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy
None
A 60-year-old woman with a history of heart failure and chronic kidney disease presents with confusion and weakness. Her labs reveal: ï‚· Sodium 118 mEq/L ï‚· Potassium 3.1 mEq/L ï‚· Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.5 mg/dL) ï‚· Bicarbonate 23 mEq/L What is the most likely cause of her hyponatremia?
Diuretic use and volume depletion
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Renal failure
Addison’s disease
Hypothyroidism
None
A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent pregnancy losses. Lab work reveals the following: ï‚· Positive lupus anticoagulant ï‚· Positive anti-cardiolipin antibody ï‚· Normal prothrombin time (PT) ï‚· Normal activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) What is the most likely diagnosis?
Factor V Leiden mutation
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Protein S deficiency
Antithrombin deficiency
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
None
A 45-year-old man with HIV presents with a 3-week history of cough, fever, and weight loss. His CD4 count is 100 cells/µL. A chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. A bronchoscopy with lavage grows Histoplasma capsulatum. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Oral fluconazole
Intravenous amphotericin B
Oral itraconazole
High-dose corticosteroids
Surgical resection
None
A 60-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. His amylase and lipase levels are significantly elevated. A CT scan shows pancreatic edema without necrosis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
Initiate intravenous fluids and pain management
Surgical intervention for pancreatic necrosis
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
None
A 38-year-old woman with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is intubated and mechanically ventilated, but her oxygenation continues to deteriorate despite optimal ventilator settings. The decision is made to initiate extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). What is the most important consideration before starting ECMO?
Ensuring that the patient is free from infection
Managing coagulation status to prevent bleeding
Starting immunosuppressive therapy to prevent rejection
Administering high doses of sedatives to ensure patient comfort
Insertion of a central venous catheter for ECMO cannulation
None
A 70-year-old male with acute kidney injury secondary to septic shock is being considered for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most important factor to consider when deciding to initiate CRRT?
Severity of hyperkalemia
Presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
Patient’s age and comorbidities
Fluid overload and failure to diurese
Timing of the patient's last dialysis session
None
A 62-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and recent hip surgery presents with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24/min, and oxygen saturation 92%. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE) in the right main pulmonary artery. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
High-dose intravenous heparin
Warfarin therapy
Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Thrombolytic therapy
Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy
None
A 34-year-old male with no significant medical history presents to the emergency department with sudden chest pain and dyspnea. He is a smoker and reports a prior episode of spontaneous pneumothorax 2 years ago. On examination, he is tachypneic with decreased breath sounds on the right side. A chest X-ray confirms a small, right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate management?
Observation and repeat chest X-ray in 12 hours
Chest tube insertion
Needle decompression
High-flow oxygen and observation
Surgical pleurodesis
None
A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent miscarriage and a positive lupus anticoagulant test presents for evaluation of her thrombophilia risk. She is also positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies. What is the most appropriate management to reduce her risk of thrombosis and pregnancy loss?
Aspirin and low-dose heparin
High-dose corticosteroids
Antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel
Warfarin during pregnancy
Immediate anticoagulation with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
None
A 58-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. His chest X-ray shows a right upper lobe mass with cavitation. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Oral fluconazole
Intravenous amphotericin B
Oral itraconazole
Surgical resection
High-dose corticosteroids
None
A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with sudden-onset epigastric pain radiating to the back. His labs reveal elevated serum lipase and amylase. A CT scan of the abdomen shows diffuse pancreatic inflammation. What is the most important initial step in management?
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
Initiate intravenous fluids and pain control
Order endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Perform a surgical drainage of the pancreas
Administer high-dose corticosteroids
None
A 65-year-old woman with a history of heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. Her electrolytes are as follows: ï‚· Sodium 128 mEq/L ï‚· Potassium 3.5 mEq/L ï‚· Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L ï‚· Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL What is the most likely cause of her hyponatremia?
Diuretic-induced volume depletion
Acute kidney injury (AKI)
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Hyperglycemia
Hyperaldosteronism
None
A 72-year-old man with septic shock and acute kidney injury is started on continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). His blood pressure is difficult to control, and he is oliguric despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Which of the following is the most common complication of CRRT?
Hypoglycemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypotension
Bleeding
Hypercalcemia
None
A 28-year-old woman with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) from pneumonia is being considered for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) due to worsening hypoxia despite maximal ventilatory support. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Start inhaled nitric oxide
Initiate ECMO therapy immediately
Administer high-dose corticosteroids
Intubate and initiate prone positioning
Begin continuous sedation and neuromuscular blockade
None
A 50-year-old man presents with acute-onset muscle weakness, periorbital edema, and respiratory distress. His labs reveal: ï‚· Creatine kinase (CK) 12,000 U/L ï‚· Positive anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies What is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-dose corticosteroids
Plasmapheresis
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Methotrexate
Organ transplant evaluation
None
A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and a positive factor V Leiden mutation test. What is the most appropriate long-term management for this patient?
Low-dose aspirin
Lifetime anticoagulation with warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
Periodic compression stockings and observation
Long-term low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Only anticoagulation during pregnancy
None
A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with acute left-sided chest pain and dyspnea following a soccer match. He is a smoker and has no history of trauma. On examination, his breath sounds are decreased on the left side. A chest X-ray confirms a small pneumothorax. What is the appropriate next step in management?
Observation with a repeat chest X-ray in 6 hours
Chest tube insertion
Needle aspiration
High-flow oxygen therapy and follow-up in 24 hours
Administration of diuretics and bed rest
None
A 24-year-old female with a history of recurrent miscarriage is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). What is the most appropriate management for preventing future pregnancy loss?
Aspirin and heparin during pregnancy
Warfarin throughout the pregnancy
Prednisone and azathioprine
Clopidogrel and low-dose aspirin
Observation and reassurance
None
A 42-year-old male presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting after a heavy meal. He has a history of alcohol use disorder. His labs show elevated amylase and lipase levels. A CT scan reveals pancreatic enlargement without necrosis. What is the most important aspect of initial management?
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
High-dose corticosteroids
Fluid resuscitation and pain management
Surgical drainage of the pancreas
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
None
A 60-year-old immunocompromised male with a history of chronic granulomatous disease presents with fever, cough, and purulent sputum. A chest CT shows multiple nodules with surrounding ground-glass opacities. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for his pneumonia?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Candida albicans
None
A 32-year-old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) presents with a positive factor V Leiden mutation test. What is the most appropriate long-term anticoagulation therapy for her?
Aspirin
Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
Warfarin
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
No treatment, as factor V Leiden does not require anticoagulation
None
A 36-year-old female with severe ARDS secondary to viral pneumonia is not improving despite maximal ventilator support. Her oxygenation remains poor, and she is in severe respiratory distress. What is the next best step in management?
Start high-dose corticosteroids
Initiate extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
Perform tracheostomy
Administer inhaled nitric oxide
Begin prone positioning
None
A 74-year-old male with heart failure presents with altered mental status, weakness, and nausea. His labs show: ï‚· Sodium 130 mEq/L ï‚· Potassium 5.8 mEq/L ï‚· Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL ï‚· Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L What is the most likely cause of his hyponatremia and hyperkalemia?
Diuretic-induced hypokalemia and hyponatremia
Acute kidney injury (AKI) with oliguria
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Addison's disease
Hyperaldosteronism
None
A 42-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is found to have antithrombin III deficiency. What is the most appropriate management for her?
Aspirin therapy
Lifetime anticoagulation with warfarin or DOACs
Periodic use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
No treatment is necessary as antithrombin III deficiency is not clinically relevant
Short-term anticoagulation during pregnancy
None
A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. His chest CT scan shows consolidation with a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. Sputum culture is positive for Aspergillus. What is the best next step in treatment?
Start high-dose corticosteroids
Begin systemic antifungal therapy (e.g., voriconazole)
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
Surgical resection of the lesion
Observation with follow-up CT
None
A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. She has a history of oral contraceptive use and recent travel. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the next step in management?
Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) and consider thrombolysis
Initiate warfarin therapy and discharge home
Begin heparin therapy and plan for outpatient management
Perform thrombectomy to remove the clot
Start direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)
None
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