Welcome to your Critical Care Test 10 A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension, smoking, and recent hip replacement surgery presents with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is performed and shows a large embolus in the right pulmonary artery. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management? Intravenous heparin Oral warfarin Thrombolytic therapy (tPA) Administer a dose of aspirin Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation None A 22-year-old male presents to the ER with sudden sharp chest pain, tachypnea, and decreased breath sounds on the right side. He has no significant past medical history. On physical examination, the trachea is midline, and breath sounds are absent on the right hemithorax. A chest x-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate next step in management? High-flow oxygen Observation and follow-up in 24 hours Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion Immediate thoracotomy Antibiotic therapy None A 45-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) on immunosuppressive therapy presents with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray shows multiple infiltrates. A sputum culture grows Histoplasma capsulatum. What is the most likely risk factor for this patient’s fungal pneumonia? Immunosuppressive therapy Recent travel to an endemic area History of smoking Exposure to bird droppings Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) None A 30-year-old woman presents with acute epigastric pain radiating to her back, nausea, and vomiting. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated amylase and lipase level (5 times the normal limit). Abdominal ultrasound shows a normal gallbladder. What is the most likely etiology of her acute pancreatitis? Gallstones Alcohol consumption Hypercalcemia Viral infection Hypertriglyceridemia None A 55-year-old man presents with hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury (AKI). He has a recent history of diarrhea. Laboratory results show schistocytes on peripheral smear and a positive stool culture for Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC). What is the most likely diagnosis? Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) None A 58-year-old man with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to septic shock is not responding to medical management with fluids and vasopressors. He is oliguric with rising creatinine levels, and his acid base status is worsening. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient? Dialysis using hemodialysis Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) Peritoneal dialysis Conservative management with diuretics Intravenous sodium bicarbonate None A 45-year-old woman with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to severe pneumonia is being mechanically ventilated but is not responding to conventional therapies. Her oxygenation remains poor despite high levels of PEEP and FiO2. Her physicians decide to initiate ECMO. Which of the following is the most likely indication for starting ECMO in this patient? Acute renal failure Cardiac arrest Severe refractory hypoxemia despite optimal mechanical ventilation Severe metabolic acidosis Neurological dysfunction None A 30-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops worsening renal failure, hematuria, and hypertension. His laboratory results show low complement levels, elevated anti-dsDNA antibodies, and proteinuria. Despite treatment with steroids and immunosuppressants, his condition deteriorates. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Dialysis Plasmapheresis Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) Rituximab therapy High-dose corticosteroids alone None A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent venous thromboembolic events despite being on warfarin therapy. Her family history is significant for multiple relatives with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following genetic disorders is most likely responsible for her recurrent clotting? Antithrombin deficiency Factor V Leiden mutation Protein C deficiency Prothrombin G20210A mutation Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) None A 60-year-old woman is admitted for heart failure exacerbation. She is receiving furosemide for diuresis. Her electrolytes are as follows: Sodium 134 mEq/L, Potassium 2.6 mEq/L, Chloride 98 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L. She is complaining of muscle weakness, palpitations, and constipation. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? Hyperkalemia Hypernatremia Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypercalcemia None A 70-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with sudden shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. A CT pulmonary angiogram reveals a large embolus in the right lower lobe. Her INR is 2.0. Which of the following is the next step in management? Continue warfarin and add low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Begin thrombolytic therapy (tPA) Initiate a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) Stop warfarin and start an intravenous heparin infusion Perform an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter placement None A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a history of corticosteroid use presents with cough, fever, and shortness of breath. A chest CT scan reveals multiple nodules and a cavity in the right upper lobe. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Oral itraconazole Intravenous amphotericin B High-dose corticosteroids Surgical resection of the lesion Broad-spectrum antibiotics None A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor, and abdominal pain. Laboratory findings include hemolytic anemia (elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin), thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury (creatinine 2.5 mg/dL). Peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes. His recent history includes a gastrointestinal illness with diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis? Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Anti-phospholipid syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) None A 30-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a history of easy bruising. Lab results show a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), normal prothrombin time (PT), and normal platelet count. Mixing studies show no correction of the aPTT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Factor VIII deficiency (Hemophilia A) Von Willebrand disease Lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid syndrome) Factor XI deficiency Hemophilia B None A 60-year-old woman with heart failure and chronic kidney disease is admitted for an exacerbation of her symptoms. She is on furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. Laboratory results show:  Sodium 135 mEq/L  Potassium 5.6 mEq/L  Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L  Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.8 mg/dL) She complains of generalized weakness and palpitations. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms? Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia Hypocalcemia Hypermagnesemia Hyperglycemia None A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes and chronic corticosteroid use presents with fever, cough, and weight loss. Chest CT reveals multiple, asymmetric, cavitary lesions with surrounding consolidation. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Oral fluconazole Oral itraconazole Intravenous amphotericin B High-dose corticosteroids Surgical resection None A 70-year-old woman is admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On day 2 of hospitalization, she develops sudden-onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A chest CT shows a pulmonary embolism in the left lower lobe. She is not hypotensive or in shock. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Initiate systemic thrombolysis Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Start intravenous heparin Start warfarin Perform an inferior vena cava filter insertion None A 25-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents with a history of spontaneous deep vein thrombosis (DVT) at the age of 20. Laboratory workup shows an elevated homocysteine level and a normal Factor V Leiden mutation test. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause? Protein S deficiency Antithrombin deficiency Homocystinuria Factor VIII deficiency Antiphospholipid syndrome None A 40-year-old man presents with weakness, confusion, and vomiting. He has a history of chronic alcohol use and is admitted for acute pancreatitis. His electrolytes are as follows: Sodium 120 mEq/L, Potassium 3.2 mEq/L, Chloride 85 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L. What is the most likely cause of his hyponatremia? Severe dehydration Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) Acute kidney injury (AKI) Diuretic use Hyperglycemia None A 40-year-old woman with a history of obesity, recent oral contraceptive use, and smoking presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. What is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for this patient? Warfarin therapy for 3 months Apixaban therapy for 3 months Warfarin therapy indefinitely Aspirin therapy for 3 months Inferior vena cava filter insertion None A 25-year-old male with no significant medical history presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of smoking and reports no recent trauma. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the left side, and a chest X-ray shows a large left-sided pneumothorax. What is the next step in management? Observation and repeat chest X-ray in 6 hours Needle aspiration of the pneumothorax Chest tube insertion Administration of oxygen and repeat imaging in 24 hours Surgical pleurodesis None A 45-year-old male with no significant medical history presents with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) despite no obvious risk factors. Lab results reveal an elevated homocysteine level. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? Vitamin B6 supplementation Low-dose warfarin therapy Lifelong anticoagulation with rivaroxaban Folate and vitamin B12 supplementation Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin None A 55-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back. His labs reveal elevated lipase, amylase, and liver enzymes. His abdominal CT shows diffuse pancreatic inflammation without pancreatic necrosis. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? Immediate surgical drainage of the pancreas Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) Fluid resuscitation and pain control Antibiotics to prevent infection Insulin therapy None A 45-year-old woman with a history of obesity and a recent cesarean section presents with sudden-onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A chest CT angiogram confirms a large pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. Her vital signs are stable, and she is not hypotensive. What is the most appropriate management? Immediate systemic thrombolysis Heparin infusion and start warfarin Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Perform inferior vena cava (IVC) filter insertion Start direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy None A 60-year-old woman with a history of heart failure and chronic kidney disease presents with confusion and weakness. Her labs reveal:  Sodium 118 mEq/L  Potassium 3.1 mEq/L  Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.5 mg/dL)  Bicarbonate 23 mEq/L What is the most likely cause of her hyponatremia? Diuretic use and volume depletion Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) Renal failure Addison’s disease Hypothyroidism None A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent pregnancy losses. Lab work reveals the following:  Positive lupus anticoagulant  Positive anti-cardiolipin antibody  Normal prothrombin time (PT)  Normal activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) What is the most likely diagnosis? Factor V Leiden mutation Antiphospholipid syndrome Protein S deficiency Antithrombin deficiency Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) None A 45-year-old man with HIV presents with a 3-week history of cough, fever, and weight loss. His CD4 count is 100 cells/µL. A chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. A bronchoscopy with lavage grows Histoplasma capsulatum. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Oral fluconazole Intravenous amphotericin B Oral itraconazole High-dose corticosteroids Surgical resection None A 60-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. His amylase and lipase levels are significantly elevated. A CT scan shows pancreatic edema without necrosis. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) Initiate intravenous fluids and pain management Surgical intervention for pancreatic necrosis Start broad-spectrum antibiotics None A 38-year-old woman with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is intubated and mechanically ventilated, but her oxygenation continues to deteriorate despite optimal ventilator settings. The decision is made to initiate extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO). What is the most important consideration before starting ECMO? Ensuring that the patient is free from infection Managing coagulation status to prevent bleeding Starting immunosuppressive therapy to prevent rejection Administering high doses of sedatives to ensure patient comfort Insertion of a central venous catheter for ECMO cannulation None A 70-year-old male with acute kidney injury secondary to septic shock is being considered for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most important factor to consider when deciding to initiate CRRT? Severity of hyperkalemia Presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) Patient’s age and comorbidities Fluid overload and failure to diurese Timing of the patient's last dialysis session None A 62-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and recent hip surgery presents with sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24/min, and oxygen saturation 92%. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE) in the right main pulmonary artery. Which of the following is the best initial treatment? High-dose intravenous heparin Warfarin therapy Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Thrombolytic therapy Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) therapy None A 34-year-old male with no significant medical history presents to the emergency department with sudden chest pain and dyspnea. He is a smoker and reports a prior episode of spontaneous pneumothorax 2 years ago. On examination, he is tachypneic with decreased breath sounds on the right side. A chest X-ray confirms a small, right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate management? Observation and repeat chest X-ray in 12 hours Chest tube insertion Needle decompression High-flow oxygen and observation Surgical pleurodesis None A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent miscarriage and a positive lupus anticoagulant test presents for evaluation of her thrombophilia risk. She is also positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies. What is the most appropriate management to reduce her risk of thrombosis and pregnancy loss? Aspirin and low-dose heparin High-dose corticosteroids Antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel Warfarin during pregnancy Immediate anticoagulation with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) None A 58-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. His chest X-ray shows a right upper lobe mass with cavitation. Sputum culture grows Aspergillus fumigatus. What is the most appropriate treatment? Oral fluconazole Intravenous amphotericin B Oral itraconazole Surgical resection High-dose corticosteroids None A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with sudden-onset epigastric pain radiating to the back. His labs reveal elevated serum lipase and amylase. A CT scan of the abdomen shows diffuse pancreatic inflammation. What is the most important initial step in management? Start broad-spectrum antibiotics Initiate intravenous fluids and pain control Order endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Perform a surgical drainage of the pancreas Administer high-dose corticosteroids None A 65-year-old woman with a history of heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. Her electrolytes are as follows:  Sodium 128 mEq/L  Potassium 3.5 mEq/L  Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L  Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL What is the most likely cause of her hyponatremia? Diuretic-induced volume depletion Acute kidney injury (AKI) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) Hyperglycemia Hyperaldosteronism None A 72-year-old man with septic shock and acute kidney injury is started on continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). His blood pressure is difficult to control, and he is oliguric despite aggressive fluid resuscitation. Which of the following is the most common complication of CRRT? Hypoglycemia Hyperkalemia Hypotension Bleeding Hypercalcemia None A 28-year-old woman with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) from pneumonia is being considered for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) due to worsening hypoxia despite maximal ventilatory support. What is the most appropriate next step in management? Start inhaled nitric oxide Initiate ECMO therapy immediately Administer high-dose corticosteroids Intubate and initiate prone positioning Begin continuous sedation and neuromuscular blockade None A 50-year-old man presents with acute-onset muscle weakness, periorbital edema, and respiratory distress. His labs reveal:  Creatine kinase (CK) 12,000 U/L  Positive anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies What is the most appropriate next step in management? High-dose corticosteroids Plasmapheresis Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) Methotrexate Organ transplant evaluation None A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and a positive factor V Leiden mutation test. What is the most appropriate long-term management for this patient? Low-dose aspirin Lifetime anticoagulation with warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) Periodic compression stockings and observation Long-term low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Only anticoagulation during pregnancy None A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with acute left-sided chest pain and dyspnea following a soccer match. He is a smoker and has no history of trauma. On examination, his breath sounds are decreased on the left side. A chest X-ray confirms a small pneumothorax. What is the appropriate next step in management? Observation with a repeat chest X-ray in 6 hours Chest tube insertion Needle aspiration High-flow oxygen therapy and follow-up in 24 hours Administration of diuretics and bed rest None A 24-year-old female with a history of recurrent miscarriage is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). What is the most appropriate management for preventing future pregnancy loss? Aspirin and heparin during pregnancy Warfarin throughout the pregnancy Prednisone and azathioprine Clopidogrel and low-dose aspirin Observation and reassurance None A 42-year-old male presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting after a heavy meal. He has a history of alcohol use disorder. His labs show elevated amylase and lipase levels. A CT scan reveals pancreatic enlargement without necrosis. What is the most important aspect of initial management? Start broad-spectrum antibiotics High-dose corticosteroids Fluid resuscitation and pain management Surgical drainage of the pancreas Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) None A 60-year-old immunocompromised male with a history of chronic granulomatous disease presents with fever, cough, and purulent sputum. A chest CT shows multiple nodules with surrounding ground-glass opacities. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for his pneumonia? Aspergillus fumigatus Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Histoplasma capsulatum Candida albicans None A 32-year-old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) presents with a positive factor V Leiden mutation test. What is the most appropriate long-term anticoagulation therapy for her? Aspirin Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) Warfarin Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) No treatment, as factor V Leiden does not require anticoagulation None A 36-year-old female with severe ARDS secondary to viral pneumonia is not improving despite maximal ventilator support. Her oxygenation remains poor, and she is in severe respiratory distress. What is the next best step in management? Start high-dose corticosteroids Initiate extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) Perform tracheostomy Administer inhaled nitric oxide Begin prone positioning None A 74-year-old male with heart failure presents with altered mental status, weakness, and nausea. His labs show:  Sodium 130 mEq/L  Potassium 5.8 mEq/L  Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL  Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L What is the most likely cause of his hyponatremia and hyperkalemia? Diuretic-induced hypokalemia and hyponatremia Acute kidney injury (AKI) with oliguria Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) Addison's disease Hyperaldosteronism None A 42-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is found to have antithrombin III deficiency. What is the most appropriate management for her? Aspirin therapy Lifetime anticoagulation with warfarin or DOACs Periodic use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) No treatment is necessary as antithrombin III deficiency is not clinically relevant Short-term anticoagulation during pregnancy None A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with fever, cough, and hemoptysis. His chest CT scan shows consolidation with a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. Sputum culture is positive for Aspergillus. What is the best next step in treatment? Start high-dose corticosteroids Begin systemic antifungal therapy (e.g., voriconazole) Start broad-spectrum antibiotics Surgical resection of the lesion Observation with follow-up CT None A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. She has a history of oral contraceptive use and recent travel. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the next step in management? Start low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) and consider thrombolysis Initiate warfarin therapy and discharge home Begin heparin therapy and plan for outpatient management Perform thrombectomy to remove the clot Start direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) None Time's up