Welcome to your Test 16 Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in a shocked patient? Central venous pressure (CVP) Urine output Heart rate Blood pressure None Which of the following agents is contraindicated in a patient with acute intermittent porphyria? Propofol Thiopentone Midazolam Ketamine None Which inhalational agent is preferred in day care surgeries? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Halothane Enflurane None Which is the most potent inhalational anesthetic agent? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Halothane Desflurane None In a patient under general anesthesia, the most sensitive monitor for detecting air embolism is: End-tidal CO₂ ECG Precordial Doppler Pulse oximeter None Which of the following drugs is preferred in rapid sequence induction? Thiopentone Midazolam Etomidate Propofol None What is the maximum allowable dose of plain lignocaine in an adult? 3 mg/kg 5 mg/kg 7 mg/kg 10 mg/kg None Which muscle relaxant is associated with histamine release and hypotension? Rocuronium Atracurium Pancuronium Vecuronium None Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by: Nitrous oxide Succinylcholine Ketamine Etomidate None Which of the following is NOT a feature of malignant hyperthermia? Hypercarbia Hypokalemia Muscle rigidity Hyperthermia None During CPR, what is the recommended chest compression depth in adults? At least 1 inch About 2 inches At least 2 inches (5 cm) At least 3 inches None Which of the following is true about succinylcholine? It is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant Causes bradycardia on first dose Can cause hyperkalemia Reversed by neostigmine None Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia? Neostigmine Dantrolene Succinylcholine Atropine None Which of the following is the first sign of anaphylaxis under GA? Skin rash Bronchospasm Hypotension Tachycardia None Which of the following opioids is safest in renal failure? Morphine Fentanyl Pethidine Codeine None What is the most appropriate management for laryngospasm? Wait and watch Suction and jaw thrust Deepen anesthesia Give suxamethonium None In a spinal block, the level of anesthesia is determined by: Height of the patient Dose and baricity of drug Duration of surgery Pain threshold None Which of these has the fastest onset among local anesthetics? Bupivacaine Ropivacaine Lignocaine Tetracaine None What is the most reliable sign of adequate neuromuscular recovery? 5-second head lift Tidal volume >5 mL/kg Train-of-four (TOF) ratio >0.9 Hand grip strength None Which local anesthetic has the highest cardiotoxicity? Lidocaine Ropivacaine Bupivacaine Prilocaine None What is the primary concern in a patient with severe COPD undergoing general anesthesia? Tachycardia Bronchospasm Hypercapnia Bradycardia None Which of the following increases MAC? Hypothermia Hypernatremia Acute alcohol intoxication Chronic opioid use None In pregnancy, MAC is: Increased Decreased Unchanged Variable None The most common cause of intraoperative awareness is: Equipment failure Light anesthesia Patient factors Human error None Which monitor provides real-time ventilation status? Capnograph ECG Pulse oximeter CVP None In obstetric anesthesia, the preferred anesthetic for an emergency C-section with full stomach is: Epidural Spinal General anesthesia with rapid sequence Ketamine alone None What’s the most appropriate action if ETCO₂ drops suddenly to zero during surgery? Start CPR Increase FiO₂ Check for ventilator disconnection Administer epinephrine None Propofol infusion syndrome is characterized by: Hypertension, bradycardia, hyperkalemia Metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac failure Respiratory alkalosis and arrhythmias Hepatic failure and hypoglycemia None Dexmedetomidine is a: GABA agonist NMDA antagonist Alpha-2 agonist Beta-blocker None A 60-year-old male develops bradycardia after spinal anesthesia. First-line treatment is: Adrenaline Atropine Ephedrine Dobutamine None Most common cause of post-spinal headache is: Hypotension CSF leak Meningitis Air embolism None Which is a sign of high spinal block? Bradycardia Nausea Hypotension All of the above None Which of the following blocks provides unilateral analgesia? Epidural Spinal TAP block Paravertebral block None ASA physical status III refers to: Healthy patient Mild systemic disease Severe systemic disease Life-threatening disease None Most common cause of aspiration pneumonitis is: Blood Acidic gastric contents Water Mucus None What is the FiO₂ delivered by a non-rebreathing mask at 15 L/min? 21% 40% 60% >90% None Which of these drugs causes adrenal suppression with prolonged use? Propofol Etomidate Dexmedetomidine Midazolam None Which opioid is most associated with chest wall rigidity? Morphine Fentanyl Codeine Tramadol None Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? Heart rate Reflex irritability Skin color Blood pressure None What is the most important step to prevent aspiration during induction? Use of ketamine Preoxygenation Rapid sequence induction Nasogastric decompression None Most effective position for spinal anesthesia in pregnant women? Sitting Supine Left lateral Trendelenburg None Which drug can precipitate seizures in epileptic patients? Etomidate Propofol Ketamine Methohexital None A 2-year-old child has laryngospasm. What’s the immediate drug of choice? Propofol Succinylcholine Ketamine Midazolam None What is the mechanism of action of bupivacaine? Blocks sodium channels Activates chloride channels Blocks potassium channels Inhibits calcium influx None Which of the following has the longest duration of action? Lignocaine Bupivacaine Chloroprocaine Prilocaine None What is the MAC of sevoflurane in adults? 0.75% 1.2% 2.0% 2.5% None Which local anesthetic is most commonly used for Bier’s block? Lignocaine Bupivacaine Tetracaine Ropivacaine None What is the first action if oxygen saturation suddenly drops under anesthesia? Increase FiO₂ Suction the airway Check airway and ventilation Give salbutamol None What is the normal range of end-tidal CO₂? 20–30 mmHg 30–35 mmHg 35–45 mmHg 45–55 mmHg None What is the immediate management of tension pneumothorax in ICU? Chest X-ray Oxygen Needle decompression Intubation None Time's up
