Welcome to your Test 17 A patient develops sudden onset hypotension and tachycardia under GA. You notice bronchospasm and facial flushing. What’s the most likely diagnosis? Myocardial infarction Pulmonary embolism Anaphylaxis Malignant hyperthermia None During rapid sequence induction, cricoid pressure is applied to prevent: Laryngospasm Bronchospasm Aspiration of gastric contents Vocal cord trauma None Which intravenous anesthetic is known for its antiemetic properties? Ketamine Etomidate Propofol Thiopentone None A patient with myasthenia gravis is undergoing surgery. Which drug should be avoided? Succinylcholine Propofol Isoflurane Glycopyrrolate None What is the mechanism of action of atropine? Beta-agonist Cholinesterase inhibitor Anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) Alpha-blocker None Which drug causes the most histamine release during IV administration? Rocuronium Atracurium Vecuronium Pancuronium None Which of the following local anesthetics is an ester compound? Lignocaine Bupivacaine Chloroprocaine Ropivacaine None What is the likely cause of persistent bradycardia during spinal anesthesia? Pain Blood loss High sympathetic block Hypovolemia None The minimum oxygen flow required with a circle system is: 100 mL/min 200 mL/min 500 mL/min 1 L/min None Which neuromuscular blocker is preferred for rapid sequence induction due to rapid onset and short duration? Atracurium Succinylcholine Rocuronium Vecuronium None Which inhalational agent causes the least airway irritation and is ideal for mask induction? Isoflurane Sevoflurane Halothane None A patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy suddenly develops high peak airway pressures and a drop in SpO₂. What is the most probable cause? Atelectasis Pneumothorax CO₂ embolism Endobronchial intubation None A 3-year-old child is brought to the OR for foreign body removal from the bronchus. What is the preferred induction method? IV induction with ketamine Inhalational induction with sevoflurane RSI with suxamethonium Awake intubation None Which of the following is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia? Preeclampsia Hypovolemia Controlled hypertension Prior lumbar surgery None What is the typical duration of action of spinal bupivacaine (hyperbaric 0.5%)? 30 minutes 60 minutes 90–120 minutes 180–240 minutes None Which muscle relaxant should be avoided in renal failure due to active metabolites? Cisatracurium Vecuronium Atracurium Rocuronium None Which monitoring is most reliable for assessing the depth of anesthesia? BIS (Bispectral Index) ECG Pulse oximetry Capnography None A patient on chronic beta-blockers is undergoing surgery. What is the best intraoperative strategy? Stop beta-blocker on day of surgery Switch to calcium channel blocker Continue beta-blocker perioperatively Withhold until postoperative period None A patient is under GA with isoflurane. Suddenly, ETCO₂ rises steeply, muscle rigidity develops, and temperature is 39°C. What’s your next step? Stop surgery Give fentanyl Administer dantrolene Increase inhalational agent None In a suspected anaphylactic reaction, what is the first drug to administer? Hydrocortisone Epinephrine Chlorpheniramine Salbutamol None What does a sudden drop in ETCO₂ during surgery most likely indicate? Hypoventilation Hypermetabolic state Pulmonary embolism Rebreathing None Which local anesthetic is preferred for spinal anesthesia in outpatient surgery? Bupivacaine Lignocaine Chloroprocaine Tetracaine None What is the mechanism of action of ketamine? GABA agonist NMDA antagonist Dopamine blocker Alpha-2 agonist None In which condition is nitrous oxide absolutely contraindicated? COPD Head injury Pneumothorax Asthma None Which of the following drugs causes the least cardiovascular depression? Propofol Etomidate Thiopentone Midazolam None A patient receives 10 mL of 2% lignocaine for a peripheral nerve block. Shortly afterward, they develop circumoral numbness and tinnitus. What is the most likely cause? Allergic reaction Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) Hypoglycemia Stroke None What is the maximum safe dose of bupivacaine with adrenaline in adults? 2 mg/kg 3 mg/kg 4 mg/kg 5 mg/kg None Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause adrenocortical suppression after a single dose? Midazolam Etomidate Propofol Ketamine None What is the most common complication of spinal anesthesia? Headache Urinary retention Hypotension Nausea None A 55-year-old male with ischemic heart disease is posted for hernia repair. Which anesthetic agent is safest for induction? Propofol Thiopentone Etomidate Ketamine None Which of the following opioids is a partial agonist-antagonist? Morphine Fentanyl Nalbuphine Methadone None What is the most appropriate test to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement? Chest auscultation Condensation in the tube Chest rise Capnography None Which of the following is a known side effect of prolonged propofol infusion in ICU patients? Hypertension Propofol infusion syndrome Hyperkalemia Seizures None What is the first-line treatment for post-dural puncture headache (PDPH)? NSAIDs IV fluids Epidural blood patch Caffeine None Which of the following intravenous agents produces dissociative anesthesia? Etomidate Midazolam Ketamine Propofol None Which neuromuscular blocker undergoes Hofmann elimination? Vecuronium Atracurium Rocuronium Succinylcholine None A child is undergoing tonsillectomy under GA. Suddenly, SpO₂ drops, ETCO₂ rises, and temperature is 40°C. Which of the following is NOT consistent with MH? Muscle rigidity Hypokalemia Hypercapnia Tachycardia None A patient develops laryngospasm during extubation. What is the best initial step? Reintubate immediately Administer succinylcholine Jaw thrust and 100% O₂ Administer propofol None Which of the following drugs is least likely to cross the placenta? Thiopentone Fentanyl Succinylcholine Midazolam None What is the ideal position for preoxygenation before induction? Supine Semi-recumbent (head up 20–30°) Trendelenburg Prone None What is the recommended method to prevent hypotension after spinal anesthesia in obstetrics? Ephedrine infusion Fluid preloading Left uterine displacement All of the above None Which regional block is most appropriate for inguinal hernia repair? Transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block Ilioinguinal–iliohypogastric block Sciatic nerve block Femoral nerve block None What is the most reliable clinical test of adequate recovery from muscle relaxant? Spontaneous eye opening Tidal volume >5 mL/kg Sustained head lift for 5 seconds Movement of all limbs None Which airway device is least suitable for high-risk aspiration patients? Endotracheal tube Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) Cricoid pressure Nasal airway None A parturient requires urgent C-section under spinal. She is hypotensive. What vasopressor is preferred? Epinephrine Atropine Phenylephrine Dopamine None Which technique is used to measure cardiac output non-invasively? Pulmonary artery catheter PiCCO Bioimpedance CVP None Which inhalational agent has the fastest onset and recovery? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Desflurane Halothane None What is the primary site of action of volatile anesthetics for unconsciousness? Spinal cord Cerebral cortex Thalamus Reticular activating system None What’s the best method to reduce risk of aspiration in an unconscious patient? Head-down position Head-up position Left lateral with head down (recovery position) Supine with neck flexion None In a child, which is the most reliable method to confirm ETT placement? Chest auscultation Condensation in ETT Chest rise Capnography None Time's up
