Quiz Archives

The femoral nerve arises from which roots?

Which nerve is the main sensory supply to the lateral thigh?

Which block best provides analgesia for anterior knee surgery?

Which structure lies immediately lateral to the femoral artery?

The sciatic nerve is composed of which two nerves?

Which nerve must be blocked for tourniquet pain during knee surgery?

What is the safest landmark for LFCN block under ultrasound?

Which is NOT a content of the adductor canal?

Which nerve innervates the posterior thigh and lower leg?

A sciatic block at the gluteal level should be performed with the patient in:

What is the endpoint of a successful femoral nerve block?

What is a reliable sonographic landmark in a femoral nerve block?

What structure lies within the adductor canal?

What is the preferred approach for ankle surgery with sciatic block?

Which nerves should be blocked for complete ankle block?

Which nerve innervates the medial aspect of the leg and ankle?

Which block is preferred for ACL repair under RA?

Which nerve provides innervation to the hip joint capsule?

Which block is suitable for analgesia after hip fracture surgery?

Which nerve lies deep to the psoas major muscle?

Which muscle is pierced by the obturator nerve?

What block is commonly used in ER for hip fracture pain?

What structure must be avoided during sciatic block at gluteal level?

What is a sign of successful obturator nerve block?

Which LA is best for motor-sparing knee block?

What is the preferred site for popliteal block under ultrasound?

Which nerve is least likely to be blocked with a standard fascia iliaca block?

Which block would you avoid in a patient with bilateral lower limb fractures and coagulopathy?

What is the most common complication of femoral nerve block?

Which block spares quadriceps strength the most?

What structure is targeted in a pericapsular nerve group (PENG) block?

Which nerve must be blocked for medial malleolus surgery?

What is the most important safety step during US-guided sciatic block?

Which nerve lies closest to the sartorius muscle in the mid-thigh?

Which nerve lies posterior to the medial malleolus?

The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensation to

The sural nerve is a branch of:

Which nerve supplies dorsum of foot except first cleft?

Which nerve lies between the heads of gastrocnemius?

Which block covers the sole of the foot?

Which of the following blocks is least painful in awake patients?

In PENG block, which landmark lies deep to psoas tendon?

Which nerve is tested by foot eversion?

What is the dose limit for ropivacaine in lower limb blocks (70 kg adult)?

What is a common side effect of ankle block?

Which block is preferred for postoperative pain after total hip replacement?

Which nerve lies closest to the ASIS?

What is the first sign of sciatic nerve stimulation during block?

What does the “double-contour sign” in US indicate?

In a high femoral block, what complication is most likely?

In a classical lateral TAP block, the local anesthetic is deposited between which two muscles?

Which dermatomes are typically covered by a lateral TAP block?

What is the main limitation of the classical TAP block?

Which abdominal block provides both somatic and visceral analgesia?

In which plane is the rectus sheath block performed?

The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves originate from:

The ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric block is commonly used for:

Which QLB type places local anesthetic posterior to the quadratus lumborum muscle?

Which landmark helps identify the transversus abdominis plane during TAP block?

Which block is best suited for analgesia after cesarean section?

Which block targets the nerves between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscle near the subcostal margin?

Which local anesthetic property is most desirable for TAP block in day-care surgery?

Which nerves are consistently blocked in lateral TAP block?

What is the risk of bilateral TAP blocks with high-volume LA in a thin adult?

Which ultrasound transducer is preferred for abdominal wall blocks?

Which block is best for umbilical hernia repair?

Which muscle lies deepest in the lateral abdominal wall?

In a QL block, where is the “shamrock sign” observed?

Which of the following blocks is NOT part of the abdominal wall blocks?

The quadratus lumborum muscle is innervated by:

What does the “double-pop” sensation during TAP block indicate?

Which abdominal wall block has the longest duration of analgesia?

The anterior branch of T12 lies within which plane?

What is the maximum safe dose of ropivacaine for bilateral TAP blocks in a 70 kg adult?

Which abdominal block is most suitable for laparoscopic cholecystectomy analgesia?

Which statement is TRUE about QL3 block (transmuscular)?

Which abdominal block targets the lower intercostal nerves before they enter the rectus sheath?

Which plane is targeted in an ilioinguinal block under US guidance?

Which complication is MOST likely with improper QLB needle placement?

The fascia transversalis lies deep to which muscle?

Which of the following blocks provides dermatomal coverage for Pfannenstiel incisions?

What is a common ultrasound landmark for the ilioinguinal block?

What LA volume is typically used per side for a TAP block in adults?

Which plane carries the lateral cutaneous branches of T12–L1 nerves?

Which block is best suited for laparoscopic appendectomy pain?

Which muscle is anterior to the quadratus lumborum?

Which block may result in sympathetic chain blockade due to paravertebral spread?

Which block carries highest risk of peritoneal puncture?

Which block may result in LA spread to thoracic paravertebral space?

What’s the clinical implication of LA spread to lumbar plexus during QLB?

Which block is most appropriate for periumbilical laparoscopy?

The posterior QLB (Type 2) is performed by depositing LA:

Which block may result in hypotension due to sympathetic blockade?

Which of these blocks has least variability in dermatomal coverage?

In subcostal TAP block, which direction is probe placed?

In a neonate, which TAP approach is most appropriate?

What is the most likely complication of rectus sheath block?

Which dermatomes are most commonly missed with TAP block alone?

What is the key advantage of QLB over TAP in abdominal surgery?

What is the ideal timing for abdominal wall blocks in ERAS (enhanced recovery)?

Which root levels form the brachial plexus?

Interscalene block is most suitable for which type of surgery?

Which nerve is typically spared in an interscalene block?

Which is the most compact location to block all cords of the brachial plexus?

Which structure lies lateral to the subclavian artery in a supraclavicular ultrasound image?

Which block has the highest risk of pneumothorax?

Which nerve must be blocked separately in an axillary block?

The infraclavicular block targets which part of the brachial plexus?

What is the most common complication of interscalene block?

Which approach provides the most motor-sparing block for wrist surgery?

Which position optimizes ultrasound visualization during an infraclavicular block?

Which nerves are commonly missed in a supraclavicular block?

Which block is most suitable for creating an arteriovenous fistula at the wrist?

Which LA combination is best for rapid onset and longer duration?

What is the typical sonoanatomy of the brachial plexus in the axillary block?

The radial nerve is best blocked at which location in the forearm?

What nerve must be blocked to anesthetize the dorsal thumb?

What is a sign of intraneural injection during an upper limb block?

Which nerve supplies sensation over the lateral forearm?

The costoclavicular approach to infraclavicular block is advantageous because:

Which nerve controls thumb opposition?

What is the sensory innervation of the medial one and a half fingers?

Which ultrasound probe is ideal for upper limb blocks?

What is a common cause of failed axillary block?

Which LA is preferred for prolonged postoperative analgesia after upper limb block?

Which nerve injury is most common following an axillary block?

What is the function of the anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)?

What is a common complication of radial nerve injury at the spiral groove?

Which nerve provides cutaneous sensation over the lateral shoulder?

In ultrasound, which artery is used as a landmark in the axillary block?

Which maneuver helps improve needle visibility in US-guided blocks?

What is the best block for distal radius fixation surgery?

Which nerve travels in the radial groove with the profunda brachii artery?

Which nerve can be visualized in the forearm between two heads of the pronator teres?

A patient undergoing hand surgery develops Horner’s syndrome. Which block is likely responsible?

Which block is preferred for finger reimplantation surgery?

Which muscle is pierced by the musculocutaneous nerve?

What is the innervation of the dorsal web space between thumb and index finger?

Which technique reduces vascular puncture during axillary block?

Which LA is most cardiotoxic?

Which nerve root lesion causes loss of elbow flexion and shoulder abduction?

Which LA provides a differential block: sensory > motor?

Which of the following is a sign of successful axillary block?

Which maneuver enhances ultrasound view of axillary artery?

Which nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle?

Which nerve supplies the anconeus muscle?

During a supraclavicular block, how can pleura be identified?

Which nerve lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?

In costoclavicular block, which artery lies between the cords?

What is the typical onset time for ropivacaine in a brachial plexus block?

What is the color code for an oxygen cylinder in Europe according to EN ISO 407?

What is the pin index system used for?

What is the pressure of a full oxygen E-cylinder (size D/E) at 20°C?

Which of the following statements about nitrous oxide cylinders is TRUE?

The pin index for nitrous oxide is:

What is the approximate volume of oxygen in a full E-cylinder?

What is the pressure in an empty oxygen cylinder?

Which of the following gas cylinders is most affected by ambient temperature?

The function of the Bodok seal in a cylinder yoke is to:

Which component reduces the pressure of gas exiting a cylinder before entering the anaesthesia machine?

The pipeline pressure for oxygen supply in an anaesthesia machine is approximately:

What is the safety system that prevents misconnection of gas hoses to pipeline outlets?

In a pipeline failure, which gas source is automatically prioritized by the anaesthesia machine?

What material is typically used in medical gas pipeline construction?

Which of the following gases is not typically piped in hospital wall outlets?

What is a major risk of pipeline cross-connection?

What is the function of a check valve in a gas supply system?

Pipeline failure should be suspected when:

What is the likely pipeline pressure when a wall outlet for air is working correctly?

In the event of pipeline gas contamination, which supply should be used?

In the anaesthesia machine, oxygen failure safety devices:

Which flowmeter is most critical for safety?

The rotameter (flowmeter) operates based on:

What happens when the oxygen flush valve is pressed?

The oxygen flowmeter is placed:

If the bobbin in a flowmeter is stuck at the bottom, what is the most likely consequence?

Which of the following is a hypoxic guard system on modern anaesthesia machines?

A gas flowmeter tube is tapered because:

When using low fresh gas flows (e.g. 0.5 L/min), which of the following becomes most important?

What is the minimum oxygen concentration that modern machines deliver when nitrous oxide is used?

What is the primary function of the oxygen fail-safe valve?

What is the function of the second-stage pressure regulator?

What property of a flowmeter allows accurate low-flow readings?

At low gas flows, flowmeter readings depend mainly on:

What is the main reason why flowmeters must be calibrated for each gas?

Which gas would show the greatest flow error if oxygen and nitrous oxide flowmeters were accidentally swapped?

The oxygen flush valve delivers gas at which pressure?

Which of the following bypasses the vaporizer when activated?

What is the most common cause of barotrauma during manual ventilation?

What is the function of the common gas outlet (CGO)?

What is the main role of the flowmeter?

Which vaporizer is typically agent-specific and keyed to accept only one volatile?

Why is desflurane vaporized differently than other agents?

Vaporizers are designed to deliver:

A temperature-compensated vaporizer achieves accurate output by:

If a vaporizer is tipped during transport, what should be done before use?

What is the function of the check valve near the CGO?

What is the best method for detecting hypoxic mixtures?

The "minimum O₂ flow" feature in modern machines typically provides:

Why should the oxygen flowmeter be placed downstream in the gas manifold?

A sudden drop in oxygen pressure with no change in flow could indicate:

Which of the following gases is most likely to produce a hypoxic mixture if misconnected?

During pre-use check, you should verify:

The O₂-N₂O proportioning device operates on what principle?

A leak in the low-pressure system of an anaesthesia machine is best detected by:

When using desflurane, which additional safety feature is included in the vaporizer?

A scavenging system prevents:

The most reliable method to prevent hypoxic gas delivery is:

A rise in back pressure in the anaesthesia machine most likely indicates:

What is the primary purpose of the APL valve in manual ventilation?

A patient develops sudden onset hypotension and tachycardia under GA. You notice bronchospasm and facial flushing. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

During rapid sequence induction, cricoid pressure is applied to prevent:

Which intravenous anesthetic is known for its antiemetic properties?

A patient with myasthenia gravis is undergoing surgery. Which drug should be avoided?

What is the mechanism of action of atropine?

Which drug causes the most histamine release during IV administration?

Which of the following local anesthetics is an ester compound?

What is the likely cause of persistent bradycardia during spinal anesthesia?

The minimum oxygen flow required with a circle system is:

Which neuromuscular blocker is preferred for rapid sequence induction due to rapid onset and short duration?

Which inhalational agent causes the least airway irritation and is ideal for mask induction?

A patient undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy suddenly develops high peak airway pressures and a drop in SpO₂. What is the most probable cause?

A 3-year-old child is brought to the OR for foreign body removal from the bronchus. What is the preferred induction method?

Which of the following is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia?

What is the typical duration of action of spinal bupivacaine (hyperbaric 0.5%)?

Which muscle relaxant should be avoided in renal failure due to active metabolites?

Which monitoring is most reliable for assessing the depth of anesthesia?

A patient on chronic beta-blockers is undergoing surgery. What is the best intraoperative strategy?

A patient is under GA with isoflurane. Suddenly, ETCO₂ rises steeply, muscle rigidity develops, and temperature is 39°C. What’s your next step?

In a suspected anaphylactic reaction, what is the first drug to administer?

What does a sudden drop in ETCO₂ during surgery most likely indicate?

Which local anesthetic is preferred for spinal anesthesia in outpatient surgery?

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

In which condition is nitrous oxide absolutely contraindicated?

Which of the following drugs causes the least cardiovascular depression?

A patient receives 10 mL of 2% lignocaine for a peripheral nerve block. Shortly afterward, they develop circumoral numbness and tinnitus. What is the most likely cause?

What is the maximum safe dose of bupivacaine with adrenaline in adults?

Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause adrenocortical suppression after a single dose?

What is the most common complication of spinal anesthesia?

A 55-year-old male with ischemic heart disease is posted for hernia repair. Which anesthetic agent is safest for induction?

Which of the following opioids is a partial agonist-antagonist?

What is the most appropriate test to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement?

Which of the following is a known side effect of prolonged propofol infusion in ICU patients?

What is the first-line treatment for post-dural puncture headache (PDPH)?

Which of the following intravenous agents produces dissociative anesthesia?

Which neuromuscular blocker undergoes Hofmann elimination?

A child is undergoing tonsillectomy under GA. Suddenly, SpO₂ drops, ETCO₂ rises, and temperature is 40°C. Which of the following is NOT consistent with MH?

A patient develops laryngospasm during extubation. What is the best initial step?

Which of the following drugs is least likely to cross the placenta?

What is the ideal position for preoxygenation before induction?

What is the recommended method to prevent hypotension after spinal anesthesia in obstetrics?

Which regional block is most appropriate for inguinal hernia repair?

What is the most reliable clinical test of adequate recovery from muscle relaxant?

Which airway device is least suitable for high-risk aspiration patients?

A parturient requires urgent C-section under spinal. She is hypotensive. What vasopressor is preferred?

Which technique is used to measure cardiac output non-invasively?

Which inhalational agent has the fastest onset and recovery?

What is the primary site of action of volatile anesthetics for unconsciousness?

What’s the best method to reduce risk of aspiration in an unconscious patient?

In a child, which is the most reliable method to confirm ETT placement?

Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in a shocked patient?

Which of the following agents is contraindicated in a patient with acute intermittent porphyria?

Which inhalational agent is preferred in day care surgeries?

Which is the most potent inhalational anesthetic agent?

In a patient under general anesthesia, the most sensitive monitor for detecting air embolism is:

Which of the following drugs is preferred in rapid sequence induction?

What is the maximum allowable dose of plain lignocaine in an adult?

Which muscle relaxant is associated with histamine release and hypotension?

Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by:

Which of the following is NOT a feature of malignant hyperthermia?

During CPR, what is the recommended chest compression depth in adults?

Which of the following is true about succinylcholine?

Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

Which of the following is the first sign of anaphylaxis under GA?

Which of the following opioids is safest in renal failure?

What is the most appropriate management for laryngospasm?

In a spinal block, the level of anesthesia is determined by:

Which of these has the fastest onset among local anesthetics?

What is the most reliable sign of adequate neuromuscular recovery?

Which local anesthetic has the highest cardiotoxicity?

What is the primary concern in a patient with severe COPD undergoing general anesthesia?

Which of the following increases MAC?

In pregnancy, MAC is:

The most common cause of intraoperative awareness is:

Which monitor provides real-time ventilation status?

In obstetric anesthesia, the preferred anesthetic for an emergency C-section with full stomach is:

What’s the most appropriate action if ETCO₂ drops suddenly to zero during surgery?

Propofol infusion syndrome is characterized by:

Dexmedetomidine is a:

A 60-year-old male develops bradycardia after spinal anesthesia. First-line treatment is:

Most common cause of post-spinal headache is:

Which is a sign of high spinal block?

Which of the following blocks provides unilateral analgesia?

ASA physical status III refers to:

Most common cause of aspiration pneumonitis is:

What is the FiO₂ delivered by a non-rebreathing mask at 15 L/min?

Which of these drugs causes adrenal suppression with prolonged use?

Which opioid is most associated with chest wall rigidity?

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score?

What is the most important step to prevent aspiration during induction?

Most effective position for spinal anesthesia in pregnant women?

Which drug can precipitate seizures in epileptic patients?

A 2-year-old child has laryngospasm. What’s the immediate drug of choice?

What is the mechanism of action of bupivacaine?

Which of the following has the longest duration of action?

What is the MAC of sevoflurane in adults?

Which local anesthetic is most commonly used for Bier’s block?

What is the first action if oxygen saturation suddenly drops under anesthesia?

What is the normal range of end-tidal CO₂?

What is the immediate management of tension pneumothorax in ICU?

Which of the following is the most common cause of hypokalemia in ICU patients?

In a patient with severe hyponatremia, what is the recommended initial approach to correct the sodium level?

Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most commonly associated with prolonged QT intervals?

Which of the following is the classic triad of thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA)?

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

In which of the following conditions is plasmapheresis most commonly used?

Which of the following is the most common complication of plasmapheresis?

Which of the following is a major advantage of CRRT over intermittent hemodialysis in critically ill patients?

Which of the following is a contraindication to CRRT?

What is the most common indication for venovenous ECMO (VV-ECMO) in the ICU?

Which of the following is the main complication associated with ECMO therapy?

In the management of elevated intracranial pressure (ICP), which of the following interventions should be performed first?

Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for status epilepticus?

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a patient with a massive pulmonary embolism and hemodynamic instability?

Which of the following is a key parameter to monitor in patients on a nitroglycerin infusion for acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

A patient with severe hyperkalemia is being treated with calcium gluconate, sodium bicarbonate, and insulin. What is the primary mechanism of action of calcium gluconate in this setting?

Which of the following is a common cause of hypercalcemia in critically ill patients?

Which laboratory test is most useful for differentiating between TTP and HUS?

Which of the following is an early sign of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

What is the role of plasmapheresis in the management of myasthenia gravis crisis?

In which of the following conditions is plasmapheresis contraindicated?

Which of the following is the primary indication for CRRT in critically ill patients?

Which of the following is a potential complication of CRRT?

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a patient on ECMO who develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

Which of the following ECMO configurations is most appropriate for a patient with severe refractory cardiac failure?

In the management of traumatic brain injury (TBI), which of the following is the most critical goal of care?

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of a comatose patient with suspected non-convulsive status epilepticus (NCSE)?

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a patient with STEMI and persistent hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation?

A patient with acute decompensated heart failure develops a new murmur. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this murmur?

A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with severe dehydration. What is the most important consideration when initiating fluid replacement in DKA?

Which of the following is the most likely cause of hypernatremia in a critically ill patient receiving intravenous fluids?

Which of the following is the most common cause of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) in children?

What is the primary treatment for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

Which of the following is a major risk of performing plasmapheresis in critically ill patients?

Which of the following autoimmune diseases can benefit from plasmapheresis therapy?

What is the primary advantage of continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) over other CRRT modalities?

Which of the following is the most common complication of CRRT?

What is a key difference between venovenous (VV) ECMO and veno-arterial (VA) ECMO?

What is the most common complication of ECMO related to anticoagulation?

In patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), what is the most common cause of delayed cerebral ischemia (DCI)?

What is the first-line treatment for intracranial hypertension in a patient with traumatic brain injury?

Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological therapy for a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and no contraindications to anticoagulation?

A patient with severe congestive heart failure (CHF) develops hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What is the most likely cause of hypotension in this patient?

Which of the following is the primary treatment for intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?